A hirsute, morbidly obese, 44-year-old woman presents with irregular periods. Pelvic sonogram demonstrates bilateral ovaries with multiple peripheral follicles. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate management?A Laparoscopic bilateral ovarian cystectomyB Laparoscopic bilateral oophorectomyC Oral contraceptivesD Danazol/gestrinoneE Endometrial ablation
Question
A hirsute, morbidly obese, 44-year-old woman presents with irregular periods. Pelvic sonogram demonstrates bilateral ovaries with multiple peripheral follicles. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate management?A Laparoscopic bilateral ovarian cystectomyB Laparoscopic bilateral oophorectomyC Oral contraceptivesD Danazol/gestrinoneE Endometrial ablation
Solution
The patient's presentation is suggestive of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), a common endocrine disorder among women of reproductive age. The symptoms include hirsutism (excessive hair growth), obesity, and irregular periods. The sonogram findings of bilateral ovaries with multiple peripheral follicles further support this diagnosis.
The most appropriate management for PCOS focuses on managing individual concerns such as infertility, hirsutism, acne, or obesity. Specific treatment might involve lifestyle modifications or medications.
In this case, the most appropriate management would be option C, Oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives can help regulate the menstrual cycle and reduce symptoms such as excessive hair growth. They also reduce the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be a concern in women with PCOS due to prolonged unopposed estrogen exposure.
The other options are less appropriate. Laparoscopic bilateral ovarian cystectomy (option A) and Laparoscopic bilateral oophorectomy (option B) are surgical procedures that are typically reserved for more severe cases. Danazol/gestrinone (option D) is used to treat endometriosis, not PCOS. Endometrial ablation (option E) is a procedure to destroy the lining of the uterus and is used to treat heavy periods, not PCOS.
Similar Questions
A 22-year-old G0 with biopsy-confirmed endometriosis continues to have disabling dysmenorrhea for 3 days at the time of menses despite cyclic oral contraceptives (OCs). What is the BEST management option?A Endometrial ablationB Uterine artery embolizationC Danazol/gestrinoneD GnRH agonist (Lupron)E Continuous OCs
A patient having both ovaries removed would be scheduled for a ___________ oophorectomy.
Match the endometrial phase with the ovarian phase: menses proliferative secretoryA. lutealB. follicula
A 16-year old patient came in asking her surgeon to remove bilateral ovariesstating she doesn’t want to have her monthly periods anymore. As a surgeon,you will refuse this procedure by virtue of: *(1 Point)21.AutonomyJusticeNon maleficenceBeneficence
Lena has been experiencing unusual menstruation. Her doctor confirms that a hormonal imbalance is not the cause of her problem. What procedure would Lena’s doctor use to examine her uterus?
Upgrade your grade with Knowee
Get personalized homework help. Review tough concepts in more detail, or go deeper into your topic by exploring other relevant questions.