An 18-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the hospital at 35 weeks gestation due to leakage of fluid and contractions for the past 3 hours.  The patient was last seen in the office 2 weeks ago, and her prenatal care has been uncomplicated.  She has no chronic medical conditions and no medication allergies.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 102/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min.  Speculum examination shows a vaginal pool of nitrazine-positive, clear fluid and the cervix dilated to 1 cm.  Transabdominal ultrasound reveals a fetus in vertex presentation, and the amniotic fluid has a deepest vertical pocket of 1.5 cm.  The fetal heart rate tracing has moderate variability and no decelerations.  The tocometer reveals contractions every 2-3 minutes.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient? A.Amnioinfusion B.Cesarean delivery C.Magnesium sulfate D.Nifedipine E.Penicillin F.TerbutalineProceed To Next Item

A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for evaluation of amenorrhea.  The patient had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery 2 years ago.  She breastfed the infant for the first year and had irregular menses during that time.  The patient had a copper intrauterine device (IUD) placed after she stopped breastfeeding and has not had a menstrual period since.  She has lost 20 kg (44.1 lb) since giving birth but has not had fatigue or heat intolerance.  The patient has no medical conditions and takes a multivitamin daily.  Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and pulse is 68/min.  BMI is 19 kg/m2.  On pelvic examination, the external genitalia are normal, and the IUD strings are properly placed.  Urine pregnancy test result is negative.  Serum FSH level is low, but prolactin and TSH levels are normal.  A progesterone challenge test is performed, and there is no uterine bleeding.  Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's amenorrhea?

A client in her 39th week of gestation arrives at the maternity clinic stating that earlier in her pregnancy, she experienced shortness of breath. However, for the past few days, she has been able to breathe easily, but she has also begun to experience increased urinary frequency. A nurse is assigned to perform the physical examination of the client. Which observation is most likely

A client who is pregnant at 39 weeks gestation spontaneously ruptured her membranes while ambulating to the bathroom. After the client returns to bed, which of the following should be the nurse's initial action?A. Assess the color of the amniotic fluidB. Perform a vaginal examination to assess the cervix for dilationC. Inform the client she is now on strict bed rest until further noticeD. Assess the fetal heart tones

31. During a client’s prenatal visit at 35 weeks’ gestation, she reports that she feels she is unable to breathe comfortably. The nurse bases the response on the fact that the client probably:*1 pointA. has a fetus in the breech presentation, which is decreasing the intrathoracic spaceB. has an elevated diaphragm, which is causing her to feel as though she is having difficulty breathingC. is experiencing shortness of breath associated with pregnancy and there are no appropriate nursing interventionD. is experiencing metabolic demands that are exceeding her oxygen consumption thus causing shortness of breath

The nurse is aware that a client at 40 weeks’ gestation is experiencing true labor if:*1 pointA. cervical dilatation has occurredB. the pains become more noticeableC. her membranes have rupturedD. the fetal heart rate baseline decreases