A 22-year-old man presents with bloody and tarry stools for the last month. The patient denies any associated symptoms and reports that he does not know his family history since he is adopted. Fecal occult blood test is positive and the patient has a hemoglobin level of 8.9 g/dL. Colonoscopy is performed and hundreds of colonic polyps are appreciated. Biopsy confirms that they are adenomatous polyps. What is the best next step in management for this patient's condition?Ask StudybuddyGroup of answer choicesRepeat colonoscopy and biopsy in 1 yearElective proctocolectomyMonthly FOBT and CEA levelsReassurance as the polyps are benign

A 62-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of weakness, fatigue, and weight loss. He also reports a burning epigastric pain. The patient has an insignificant past medical history and smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day. He drinks 4 to 5 beers per day as well. Work-up is initiated and the patient is found to have a positive fecal occult blood test. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy is performed and demonstrates a fundal ulcer. Biopsy is performed and is positive for adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

A laboratory test for hidden blood in the stools is referred to as Group of answer choicesfecal occult blood testgastroscopycolonoscopybarium enema

A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician because of multiple nontender, pruritic lesions over her face, arms, chest, and abdomen. She first noticed the lesions over her lower abdomen 5 weeks ago and says that they have since become more diffuse. She also has had fatigue and has had weight loss of 6.8 kg (15 lb) during the past 3 months. The patient has not seen a physician during the past 9 years. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Her father was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at the age of 65 years. The patient drinks one to two glasses of wine with dinner nightly and smokes marijuana two to three times weekly. She has had six male sexual partners during the past 3 years and does not use condoms regularly. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Dermatologic examination shows greater than 100 flesh-colored, dome-shaped papules over the face, upper extremities, thorax, lower abdomen, and genital regions. The lesions are nontender and have areas of central umbilication. A photograph is shown.The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Testing for which of the following conditions is the most appropriate next diagnostic step for this patient?A. Diabetes mellitusB. Epstein barr virus infectionC. Gastric cancerD. Human herpes virus 8 infectionE. HIV infection

A 28-year-old woman presents to her physician complaining of abdominal pain. A urinalysis shows 8 RBCs with no WBCs or protein, and no dysmorphic cells or casts. She is eventually diagnosed with gastroenteritis and is sent home. A urine culture comes back negative several days later. What should be done next in the workup of this patient with hematuria?Ask StudybuddyGroup of answer choicesCystoscopyCT scan of the abdomen and pelvisRepeat urinalysis in a few daysTransvaginal ultrasoundReassurance

Your microscopic examination of a stool sample reveals proglottids. What is the disease?