A 34-year-old  female with a mechanical mitral valve has been taking warfarin  chronically to prevent thrombosis.Warfarin dose: 5 mg PO daily INR range for the past 6 months: 2.6 - 3.1 (INR goal 2.5 -  3.5)She was admitted  for ventricular tachycardi and started on Amiodarone infusion 150mg\dayWhich of these actions is considered the most safe practice ?Question 2Select one or more:A.Increase the dose of Warfarin after 3 days from initiation of amiodaroneB.Monitor INR closely C.Reduce the dose of amiodarone to 75 mgD.consider decreasing the dose of warfarin to 2.5mg \day

History A 54-year-old female patient presented to the emergency department with a 6-h history of worsening shortness of breath and sharp, right-sided chest pain that was worse on deep inspi- ration. She denied experiencing palpitations, did not complain of nausea, and was not feeling lightheaded. She had a history of recurrent deep vein thromboses for which she was on lifelong warfarin. Her INR had been stable at 3.0–3.5 with 5 mg warfarin once daily for more than a year and had last been checked 4 weeks ago. Her only other past medical history was a recent diagnosis of active pulmonary tuberculosis, for which the patient had been prescribed isoniazid (along- side pyridoxine), rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol. The patient worked as a primary school teacher and was usually fit and well. She had never smoked and denied any regular alcohol intake. There was no relevant family history. Examination The patient appeared moderately dyspnoeic on exertion but was able to speak comfortably at rest. Her pulse rate was 110 beats per minute and regular and her blood pressure was stable at 130/84 mmHg. Her respiratory rate was 22 breaths per minute. She was afebrile. I have read the History *YesNoResults A CT pulmonary angiogram scan showed large volume, bilateral pulmonary emboli but no evidence of associated right heart strain. *I have read the resultNo I didn't read itOther:The reason for developing pulmonary embolus at this point of time is due to drug interaction at the level of*1 pointa. absorptionb. Distributionc. metabolismd. elimination

The nurse is preparing to administer medications to assigned clients. Which prescription should the nurse clarify with the primary healthcare provider (PHCP)?A. Warfarin to a client with an international normalized ratio (INR) of 1.8 seconds [0.9–1.2]B. Digoxin to a client with a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L [3.5-5 mEq/L, mmol/L]C. Enoxaparin to a client with a platelet count of 155,000 mm3 [150-400 mm3, 130–380 × 10⁹/L]D. Lisinopril to a client with a serum creatinine level of 0.6 mg/dL [Male: 0.6-1.2 mg/dL, Female: 0.5-1.1 mg/dL, Female 30–190 IU/L, Male 30–250 IU/L]

A nurse is caring for a 39-year-old female client on a medical-surgical floor. The interdisciplinary team has determined that the client is at a risk for the development of a pulmonary embolism and has therefore implemented prophylactic measures. The client is prescribed Warfarin therapy for its anticoagulant effects. Based on the nurse's understanding of the drug, the nurse confirms that the drug has reached a therapeutic level when which of the following coagulation results are obtained?The client's baseline coagulation studies:Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): 30 secondsInternational normalized ratio (INR): 1.5Prothrombin time (PT): 10 secondsCassidy RhodyID: 112703Question 6Select one:1.PT 7 seconds, INR 2.52.PT 19 seconds, INR 2.03.PT 25 seconds, INR 2.14.aPTT 35 seconds, INR 3.0

Ms Dittmer has been commenced on warfarin. She is having daily INR blood testing completed and the dose of warfarin is being adjusted every day.  Is it true or false whether the RN/RM is able to delegate to the EN to independantly use the warfarin protocol to calculate the dose of warfarin and then administer the warfarin independently? Medicines Management Policy - click hereSelect one:TrueFalse

A 52-year-old female presents to the emergency room with swelling over her right calf for the past 3 days. Her right calf is warm, erythematous, and tender to palpation. A duplex is performed and shows a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This is her first DVT. She is started on warfarin and told that she must continue it for the next 3 months. What effect does warfarin have on the coagulation panel?Question 6Answera.Increases bleeding timeb.Increases prothrombin timec.Decreases partial thromboplastin timed.Increases partial thromboplastin timee.Decreases prothrombin time