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Show that the following functions defined on R are all Borel measurable.(a) f (x) ={0 if x is rational1 if x is irrational, (b) g(x) ={x if x is rational−x if x is irrational

Question

Show that the following functions defined on R are all Borel measurable.(a) f (x) ={0 if x is rational1 if x is irrational, (b) g(x) ={x if x is rational−x if x is irrational

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Solution

To show that a function is Borel measurable, we need to show that the pre-image of any open set in the range of the function is a Borel set in the domain of the function.

(a) For the function f(x) = {0 if x is rational, 1 if x is irrational}, the range of the function is {0,1}. The open sets in the range are {}, {0}, {1}, and {0,1}.

The pre-image of {} is {}, which is a Borel set.

The pre-image of {0} is the set of all rational numbers, which is a Borel set because it can be written as a countable union of singletons, each of which is a Borel set.

The pre-image of {1} is the set of all irrational numbers, which is a Borel set because it is the complement of the set of all rational numbers, and the complement of a Borel set is a Borel set.

The pre-image of {0,1} is the entire real line, which is a Borel set.

Therefore, f is Borel measurable.

(b) For the function g(x) = {x if x is rational, -x if x is irrational}, the range of the function is the entire real line.

The pre-image of any open interval (a,b) is the union of two sets: the set of all rational numbers in (a,b) and the set of all irrational numbers in (-b,-a). Both of these sets are Borel sets for the same reasons as in part (a), and the union of two Borel sets is a Borel set.

Therefore, the pre-image of any open set in the range of g is a Borel set, so g is Borel measurable.

This problem has been solved

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