A 45-year-old woman presented with exertional dyspnea. Fourteen years earlier the patient was diagnosed with arterial hypertension with a blood pressure of 170/105 mm Hg. Her blood pressure at presentation was 155/95 mm Hg. Physical examination was remarkable for lower-extremity edema, and abdominal enlargement due to ascites. Transthoracic echocardiogram showed left ventricular ejection fraction of 28% (reference range: 50-57%). Which of the following is the patterns of cardiac failure seen in this patient?

Which of the following clinical signs suggests left ventricular failure?I. Pedal edemaII. Bibasal crackles from pulmonary edemaIII. Finger clubbingIV. Thoracic hyperexpansion

A 50-year-old woman has had increasing dyspnea for the past 2 days. She was admitted but expiresseveral hours later. Gross finding of the heart shows pallor of the myocardium and 80% occlusionof the left anterior descending artery.Questions:a. What is your diagnosis and explain its pathophysiology?b. Identify the microscopic changesWhat are the different cardiac markers useful for the diagnosis? Explain the significance of eachcardiac maker.

Pulmonary edema normally follows soon afterMultiple Choiceleft heart failure.left ventricular hypertrophy.primary hypertension.right heart failure.complete heart failure.

A 78-year-old male with a history of aortic stenosis with a mechanical aortic valve, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes presents to office for evaluation. He is doing well, except for some palpitations over the past few months. He does not have associated shortness of breath, syncope, or a history of falls. On physical examination, you note an irregularly irregular heart rhythm and a mechanical S2. Examination is otherwise normal. You obtain an ECG, which confirms the irregularly irregular arrhythmia. The patient has no history of bleeding and Hgb is normal. What is the recommended medication for prevention of thromboembolic events?Ask StudybuddyGroup of answer choicesWarfarinAspirinClopidogrelDabigatranApixaban

A 43-year-old woman comes to the office due to lower extremity edema that has developed over the last 2 weeks.  She has no cough, shortness of breath, chest pain, or leg pain.  Medical history is significant for diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.  Her antihypertensive regimen was recently adjusted to improve blood pressure control.  Blood pressure is 133/80 mm Hg and BMI is 27 kg/m2.  Physical examination shows bilateral pedal edema but is otherwise unremarkable.  Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms? A.Amlodipine B.Hydrochlorothiazide C.Losartan D.Metoprolol E.Ramipril