Which of the following is the most accurate representation of Kant’s “categorical imperative”?Question 8Answera.act always in accordance with the “golden mean”b.act only in that way that reason remains in its proper place as a “slave to the passions”c.act only in accordance with a moral maxim which you can also say ought be universal moral law (i.e., everyone ought act the same way)d.act only in a way that generates the most happiness and least suffering for the most people

22. With regard to Kant’s distinction of categorical and hypothetical imperatives, which of the following statement/s is/are true?*A. Categorical imperatives specify actions which we ought to take given certain particular goals we want to achieve.B. Hypothetical imperatives specify actions which we ought to do regardless of whether doing so would enable us to get anything we want.C. Both A and BD. None of the above

What is the difference between a hypothetical and a categorical imperative? Why does Kant think that morality consists of categorical imperatives?

he first maxim of Kant establishes: a. Human beings can use themselves as mere means but not others b. None of the options c. Falling in love is a natural tendency of human beings d. Actions that can't be universalised without contradiction are unethical e. Human rights do not matter when it comes to protecting a nation state f. By doing an act a human being wills that it should become a law without contradiction

What are the primary differences between Kant's categorical imperatives and utilitarian theories? What can be the major problems with act utilitarianism in certain cases? Substantiate your answer with an appropriate example

[1.4] Is it justified to view Kant’s categorical imperative as a development of Smith’s notion of the impartial spectator? Why or why not?